Dogyote

How would you feel if those fossil fuel producers stopped extracting fossil methane and instead were producing methane from atmospheric CO2 and fossil free energy?

I do not follow your logic at all. It seems like you're trying really hard to find some racism that just isn't there.

It's been called out for decades now. Explaining the situation every time a non-European site predates a European site of the same type would be beating a dead horse.

It's not a leap at all. If hypothesis 1 is correct then you'll find cave art all over the world because humans were making cave art before they left Africa. There's been debate over whether Neanderthals were making art as well, seems like they were imo, and they left Africa well before Sapiens did.

Hypothesis 2 was never plausible. It was probably only considered plausible by people with hardly any archeological data who were stuck inside a white-supremacist worldview in 1940. The world has since made some progress disabusing itself of such ideas.

Do you have any good biochar resources I could check out?

I think they're drawing from the out-of-Africa hypothesis. If there is cave art in Indonesia and Europe, then it's plausible that the ancestors of both populations, which were in Africa, were also making cave art.

If you'd like a deeper dive into this topic then there's a book called The Dawn of Everything by David Graeber and David Wengrow.

This is just fearmongering. Oh no the sneaky Chinese cars are mapping our potholes...

Y'all don't even know what tankies are anymore.

Here's some pics: https://2.bp.blogspot.com/-yjf73vy_VRo/T6rqS_Yec_I/AAAAAAAAAFQ/nAKPcFeo87w/s1600/durendal.jpg

https://www.ancient-origins.net/sites/default/files/embedded-stone-in-Rocamadour.jpg

The home was reportedly listed as a power of sale, which differs from a regular home sale. The clause is usually written into a mortgage note that authorizes the mortgagee to sell their property in the event of default to repay the mortgage debt.

As a result, the lender forces a sale on the public market and gets all the funds owed to them, while the current owner gets to keep any excess profit. In a foreclosure scenario, the lender usually takes ownership and gets to keep all the profits from the sale.

I bet the former owners initially made an $800,000 down payment. The timeline of price drops was rapid, just over a matter of months, so I'd guess the low selling point was probably pushed through by the bank trying to recover the money they lent as quickly as possible.

I find it contradictory to first praise the imprecision of language but then go on to identify terms who's imprecise use results in unproductive discussion and arguments. The author's biases were on display and their definitions were fairly imprecise to boot imo.