this post was submitted on 13 Jan 2025
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Women (who owned property worth more than £5 (which remained as the restriction on men) lost the right to vote in 18th century England off the top of my head.
Midwivery was illegalised too, and replaced by scientific male doctors.
Science and Reason was used to justify both.
1830 was post enlightenment. It was characterized by a return to religious fundamentalism known as the Second Great Awakening.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Great_Awakening
That's the 19th Century, so it's about 100 years after what I was talking about.
The Enlightenment is generally regarded as being the 17th and 18th centuries, or 1601 - 1800.
From the wiki link I already posted:
" The outpouring of religious fervor and revival began in Kentucky and Tennessee in the 1790s and early 1800s"
The age of Enlightenment ended with a renewed religious fervor. It took decades for religious views to again be tempered before women were allowed to vote again.
OK, so you responded to me talking about science and reason taking away women's rights in 18th century England with a 19th century American religious resurgence. The religious aspect was not used to justify the removal of women's rights in England.
I'm missing something I think. What are you implying or showing?
The British Great Awakening preceded the American one and ended with the end of Enlightenment.
By your own admission, 1830 was not the age of Enlightenment.
Ah, I had my date wrong. It was later than I remembered, and you were saying 1830 as that coincided with it.
I'm sorry, it was my mistake from the start. Thanks for being patient with me.