this post was submitted on 10 Oct 2024
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Capitalism and slavery are incompatible.
Why not? Capitalism is private control over the factors of production - it's not "equal freedom" or anything like that. The American South was capitalist during chattel slavery.
And that's not even getting into wage slavery.
If someone is legally exercising force over someone else, they are a de facto entity of the state.
Are you just making up phrases at this point? Show us where in the definition of capitalism that human rights exist.
From DuckDuckGo:
This isn't necessary for all of them, but from Wikipedia:
Slave masters are regulators of population, so they are an actor of the state.
If I tell you to get the fuck out of my way I also regulate population but I’m not the state. Note that even your definition says ‘a’, not ‘the’.
Also, and more importantly, enslaved people are seen as property (and thus also as means of production) instead of population. IIRC this goes back to the definition of populace back in Ancient Greece but I can’t be arsed to look it up.
Regulate would mean a legal basis to dictate/legislate to.
You're going to have to be a bit more specific than that, there are a lot of "a"s
Yes, that is how they were seen by some people. And those people were wrong. If I become a tyrant and declare I'm the only real person and everyone else is my property, then seize all their property- is that capitalism? Because 1 person just owns all the property? No, its because the definition of person is wrong. Enslaved people were still people, so they could not be property, even though the law claimed they could be.