this post was submitted on 18 Apr 2024
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rule, innit (ukfli.uk)
submitted 7 months ago* (last edited 7 months ago) by [email protected] to c/[email protected]
 
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[–] [email protected] 58 points 7 months ago (3 children)

So it's the same thing as 'ne?' in German? Did they copy us? Did we copy them?

"Ganz schön kalt heute, ne?" = "Pretty cold today, innit?"

[–] [email protected] 27 points 7 months ago (1 children)

It's all copied from the Romans 🤷‍♂️

[–] [email protected] 5 points 7 months ago

More like the Indians, more specifically the early Indo-European. You can trace the migration of Indo-European by language groups. Sanskrit was carried from India to Mesopotamia, into the central step, to the northern caucuses and even as far as the eastern step and into Manchuria.

It's possible that this particular particle was transferred from central step people like the scythian to eastern tribes of the xiongnu who eventually settled in Southern Korea, leading to the yayoi migration to Japan.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 7 months ago

We also have it in Milan, but it can be put also before the sentence, same meaning though

"Fa freschino oggi, né?" or "Né che fa freschino oggi?" or in Milanese "Fà fregg incö, né?"

They all mean "pretty cold today, innit?"