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EXCLUSIVE: Lord Cameron under pressure to release £2.34bn funds from Chelsea sale
(www.telegraph.co.uk)
this post was submitted on 27 Nov 2023
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Can someone explain this in simpler terms
The owner of Chelsea was Russian. Russia was sanctioned. The owner was forced to sell. The government withheld the money owed to the Russian owner as part of the sanctions. The money was promised to Ukrainian war victims. They appear to still be withholding it either out of bureaucratic incompetence or a greed for the interest generated from it.
they took it out of greed and are keeping it out of greed. there was never any other element to the situation.
The government isn't getting anything out of it. The money technically isn't theirs. It's frozen assets, not seized. They are just refusing to unfreeze it until there's some proof that Abramovich is actually going to do with it what he promised, and that it isn't secretly helping the Russian war effort.
Or the fact that one of Abramovichs steel companies was providing steel for Russian tanks.
Why does the British government get to keep all the money? Did he use British loans to buy the team and they’re collecting on it?