Football / Soccer / Calcio / Futebol / Fußball

I just don't really get the consistency here.

I personally have no issue with VAR not being able to rule that the ball went out of play. I think Gabriel was fouled in the build-up and I still don't see how they didn't have the correct footage for the offside, but that's another matter entirely.

My point is that if there wasn't enough evidence to rule out whether or not Willock had run the ball out for them to act, then why was Rashford keeping the ball in play against Brighton not given the same advantage? Surely, they had the same level of evidence for that, no?